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Sat / act prep online guides and tips, every ap biology practice test available: free and official.

Advanced Placement (AP)

Practice tests can help you get familiar with the structure of the AP Biology exam and feel more comfortable with the types of questions you'll be expected to answer on test day. Studying with practice tests can also give you insight into the specific struggles you might have with the material as presented on the AP test. You can then focus your studying appropriately to tackle these problems.

In this article, I'll list all the practice tests for AP Biology that you can find online and give you a few tips on how to use them effectively as study aids for both the AP test and any in-class tests you have throughout the school year.

Official AP Biology Practice Exams

Official practice tests provide the best preparation for the AP test. You can be sure that the questions are accurate representations of what you'll see on the final exam.

Unfortunately, I could only find one official practice test for the new version of the AP Biology test since the format and content changed so recently (2012). However, this practice test also has other information that makes it more helpful. It tells you how to calculate your score and includes detailed answer explanations for each question at the end.

Official Practice Test #1

Don't start your practice with this test. It's the most accurate preparation you'll have for the real AP test, so you should save it for towards the end of your second semester when you feel confident that you've mastered the material. It's better to begin studying with the unofficial tests in the next section as a warm-up!

You can also access official free-response questions from 2013, 2014, and 2015 on the College Board website.

Free Response Questions

The free-response section of the AP Biology test is usually considered to be the most difficult part, so it's good to have a little extra practice with these even if you're not answering them in the context of a full practice test.

In addition to these resources, all AP teachers have access to a bunch of free official practice AP tests online. You can ask your teacher if he or she will print a couple out for you to use in your studying.

Unofficial AP Biology Practice Exams

There are many unofficial AP Biology practice tests out there that you can use to help review the material. There's nothing wrong with using these tests to get more practice, but try not to rely on them exclusively because they are not always totally accurate representations of the real AP Biology exam. Some are aligned with the format of the pre-2012 exam, and some are just multiple-choice tests of varying lengths with no free response questions.

Because the AP Biology exam has been revised, you'll get a more accurate estimate of how well you're doing if you use recent practice tests that are aligned with the new test's format. Before 2012, the AP Biology test had 100 multiple-choice questions and four free-response questions rather than the current 63 multiple-choice questions, six grid-in questions, six short free-response questions, and two long free-response questions. The old test was also more memorization-based.

On the current AP Biology exam, you'll have to answer a lot of questions that involve analyzing experimental data using your background knowledge of biology. You won't see questions that just ask you to do something like identify parts of a process in a diagram.

A couple of these unofficial tests do have the same format as the current exam, including the Barron's practice test and all the tests in the "subscription needed" section. You should save these for later on in your second semester when you want to get a more accurate assessment of your readiness for the final exam (and then follow them up with the official practice test in the previous section if you feel confident that you've fixed your problem areas!).

Free AP Biology Practice Tests

Barron's Practice Test

• Barron's offers a free practice test online that has the same format as the current AP test.
• You can take it in timed or untimed ("practice") mode.
• If you use practice mode, you can see answer explanations as you go along.
• The multiple-choice section has automated scoring, but you'll have to self-score your free-response answers (guidelines are provided).

My Max Score Practice Test

• This is an old-format test that includes 100 multiple choice questions and four free-response questions.
• It also has detailed answer explanations for all questions.

Varsity Tutors Diagnostic Tests

• This is a list of ten multiple-choice diagnostic tests rated by difficulty level.
• Tests 4-10 have the same number of questions as the real multiple-choice section.
• Sorry, there are no free-response questions on this site.

Kaplan Practice Tests

• There are a few unit-specific quizzes here along with two longer practice tests that have almost as many questions as the multiple-choice section on the real exam (58 and 62 as opposed to 63 + 6 grid-ins).
• There are no free-response questions.

Learning Express 120-Question and 100-Question Practice Tests

• These are a couple more old-format multiple-choice tests with answers included at the end.
• If you just want to test yourself on the basic information in the course, these could be useful.

Subscription Needed

Shmoop Practice Tests (free trial available, $24.68 a month for subscription)

• A subscription to Shmoop will get you access to a diagnostic test plus five full AP Biology practice tests (including both multiple-choice and free-response questions, although these are of course unofficial).
• Shmoop tries a little too hard to relate to kids with their writing style, but if you're not put off by that, it might be a good resource for you.

BenchPrep Practice Tests (with subscription that costs $30 a month)

• Here, you'll get access to two full practice tests plus a ton of lessons.

Practice Tests in Review Books

• You might also decide to order a review book to get access to more practice tests.
• You'll find some good resources in the books listed in my article on the best AP Biology books for 2016.

How to Use AP Biology Practice Tests

This section is full of all the advice you need to follow to use AP Biology practice tests effectively during both your first and second semesters in the class.

First Semester: Using Practice Tests for Your Class

Although it might not make sense to take full practice tests yet, you can still use the materials in this article as resources for your studying. Look for free-response questions that relate to what you've learned so far so that you can start to get familiar with their format and expectations.

There are also plenty of sites that have quizzes that touch on specific units in the AP Biology curriculum. These include Learnerator , Varsity Tutors (which I mention above for diagnostic tests, but they also have subject-by-subject quizzes), and Quizlet . These won't be official questions, but they will help prepare you for in-class assessments and serve as a solid introduction to the types of questions you might be asked on the AP test. You should also check out my complete AP Biology review guide for more advice on how you can use online resources to study specific units of the course.

Second Semester: Preparing for the AP Test

By this time, you should be familiar with most of the material that you'll see on the test. This means you can start using full practice tests to judge how you'll score on the AP test and where your weaknesses lie. Remember to time yourself accurately when you take practice tests! Each time you take and score a practice test, you should also do an evaluation of your mistakes that will inform your studying going forward. Mistakes come in a few different forms, and things can be even more complex on the AP Biology test because there are technically four types of questions.

Focus on the multiple-choice section first, including the grid-ins. Notice whether your mistakes tend to happen on straightforward questions where you just didn't have the content knowledge or on questions that require deeper analysis. Were there specific content areas where you missed a significant number of questions? Keep track of this so that you can go back into your notes and review the appropriate unit(s). These are easy mistakes to fix.

Did you have trouble interpreting and analyzing scenarios on the test even though you knew the background information? The remedy for this is more practice. There are many sites with AP Bio practice questions available. This book of practice questions is also useful because the questions faithfully replicate the new design of the test.

It's possible that your problem lies outside the specifics of the questions and more in the format of the test. Did you run out of time? Make a ton of careless mistakes? The solution to this is greater awareness of your pacing and more practice questions.

Grid-ins are weird, so you may have had trouble on them if you're not big on the math aspect of biology. Try to find similar problems in your textbook, review book, or online so that you can practice your skills. The more math-oriented biology questions you do over time, the more likely it is that the questions on the test will be aligned with what you've already seen.

After taking your multiple-choice mistakes into account, you can move onto the free response section. Notice which questions gave you the most trouble and why. Did you forget the information you needed, or were you confused about what the question was asking or how to analyze a diagram? Take these findings and apply them to your future practice!

Essential AP Biology Practice Testing Tips

Follow these four tips to be sure to get the most out of your AP Biology practice tests.

#1: Replicate Realistic Test Conditions

It's always important to be faithful to the rules of the real test when you take practice tests so that your scores accurately reflect your potential. That means an hour and thirty minutes for each section. This is the only way to judge whether time is going to be an issue for you. You should also print out the test so that you take it in the right format. Have a calculator on hand as well. If you're really dedicated, you can even have someone serve as your mock proctor.

#2: Don't Panic if You're Not Familiar With Scenarios You See on the Test

Even if you've gone over every in-class lab that you had to do for AP Biology, you will still run into examples you haven't seen before. It's important not to psych yourself out when this happens. Focus on the diagrams and what you can learn from them, and see if you can think of a related experiment that will clue you into what they mean. Use your common sense; many questions will depend more heavily on your ability to analyze the situation at hand than on your memorization talent.

#3: Give Yourself Plenty of Time for the Grid-Ins

The so-called multiple-choice section also includes six grid-in questions. These questions are at the end of the section, and they will probably take you longer to solve than most multiple-choice questions. Try not to spend more than a minute on each multiple-choice question. If you find that you're taking too much time, you should move on and come back to it later!

#4: Spend 5-10 Minutes Reading the Free-Response Questions Before You Start Writing

It's a smart idea to start with the free-response questions that you know you can answer quickly and accurately. Leading with these questions will boost your confidence and help you avoid problems with time. Use the short reading period to look over all eight free-response questions and see which ones will be easiest for you to tackle.

You should take plenty of practice tests as part of your studying for AP Biology. You can't expect pure memorization to save you on questions that ask you to analyze scenarios you've never seen before. Practice questions are the key to improvement!

You can use a mixture of official and unofficial tests to practice. Just be wary of major differences in your scores from test to test so that you can accurately assess your readiness for the final. You can even use these tests throughout the year to practice for specific units of the course. If you do enough serious practice, the real AP test will be a piece of cake (well, maybe not, but it will be much less traumatizing).

What's Next?

Check out my detailed guide to the AP Biology Exam for more information about what's on this test and how you can prepare for it.

Are you taking both AP tests and SAT Subject Tests? Find out which kind of test is more important and what the major differences are between the two.

Many students take AP classes in the hopes of earning credit for college coursework in high school. Learn more about how AP credit works in college.

These recommendations are based solely on our knowledge and experience. If you purchase an item through one of our links, PrepScholar may receive a commission.

Samantha is a blog content writer for PrepScholar. Her goal is to help students adopt a less stressful view of standardized testing and other academic challenges through her articles. Samantha is also passionate about art and graduated with honors from Dartmouth College as a Studio Art major in 2014. In high school, she earned a 2400 on the SAT, 5's on all seven of her AP tests, and was named a National Merit Scholar.

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AP Essay Questions

Draw a graph of these data and answer the following questions.

• What is the initial rate of this enzymatic reaction?
• What is the rate after 50 seconds? Why is it different from the initial rate?
• What would be the effect on product formation if the enzyme where heated to a temperature of 100° C for 10 minutes before repeating the experiment? Why?
• How might altering the substrate concentration affect the rate of the reaction? Why?
• How might altering the pH affect the rate of the reaction? Why?

4.  Enzymes are biological catalysts.

• Relate the chemical structure of an enzyme to its specificity and catalytic activity.
• Design a quantitative experiment to investigate the influence of pH or temperature on the activity of an enzyme.
• Describe what information concerning the structure of an enzyme could be inferred from your experiments.

Unit 3 (Cell Structure and Function, Cell division)

5.  Describe the fluid-mosaic model of a plasma membrane. Discuss the role of the membrane in the movement of materials through it by each of the following processes:

• Active transport
• Passive transport

6.  Describe the structure of a eukaryotic plant cell. Indicate the ways in which a nonphotosynthetic prokaryotic cell would differ in structure from this generalized eukaryotic plant cell.

7.  Discuss the process of cell division in animals. Include a description of mitosis and cytokinesis, and of the other phases of the cell cycle. Do Not include meiosis.

8.  A laboratory assistant prepared solution of 0.8 M, 0.6 M, 0.4 M, and 0.2 M sucrose, but forgot to label them. After realizing the error, the assistant randomly labeled the flasks containing these four unknown solutions as flask A, flask B, flask C, and flask D.

Design an experiment, based on the principles of diffusion and osmosis, that the assistant could use to determine which of the flasks contains each of the four unknown solutions. Include in your answer (a) a description of how you would set up and perform the experiment: (b) the results you would expect from your experiments: and (c) an explanation of those results based on the principles involved. (Be sure to clearly state the principles addressed in your discussion.)

9.  Cells transport substances across their membranes. Choose THREE of the following four types of cellular transport.

• Active Transport
• Facilitated Diffusion
• Endocytosis/exocytosis

For each of the three transport types you choose,

• Describe the transport process and explain how the organization of cell membranes functions in the movement of specific molecules across membranes; and
• Explain the significance of each type of transport to a specific cell (you may use difference cell types as examples.)

Unit 4 (Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration)

10.  Describe the similarities and differences between the biochemical pathways of aerobic respiration and photosynthesis in eukaryotic cells. Include in your discussion the major reactions, the end products, and energy transfers.

11.  The rate of photosynthesis may vary with changes that occur in environmental temperature, wavelength of light, and light intensity. Using a photosynthetic organism of your choice, choose only ONE of the three variables (temperature, wavelength of light, or light intensity) and for this variable

• design a scientific experiment to determine the effect of the variable on the rate of photosynthesis for the organism;
• explain how you would measure the rate of photosynthesis in your experiment;
• describe the results you would expect. Explain why you would expect these results.

12.  Describe the light reactions of photosynthesis and, for both a C3 and a C4 plant, trace the path of a carbon dioxide molecule from the point at which it enters a plant to its incorporation into a glucose molecule. Include leaf anatomy and biochemical pathways in your discussion of each type of plant.

13.  Explain what occurs during the Krebs (citric acid) cycle and electron transport by describing the following:

• The location of the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain in mitochondria.
• The cyclic nature of the reactions in the Krebs cycle.
• The production of ATP and reduced coenzymes during the cycle.
• The chemiosmotic production of ATP during electron transport.

14.  Membranes are important structural features of cells.

• Describe how membrane structure is related to the transport of materials across the membrane.
• Describe the role of membranes in the synthesis of ATP in either cellular respiration or photosynthesis.

15. Energy transfer occurs in all cellular activities. For 3 of the following 5 processes involving energy transfer, explain how each functions in the cell and give an example. Explain how ATP is involved in each example you choose.

• cellular movement
• active transport
• synthesis of molecules
• chemiosmosis
• fermentation

16. The results below are measurements of cumulative oxygen consumption by germinating and dry seeds. Gas volume measurements were corrected for changes in temperature and pressure.

• Using the graph paper provided, plot the results for the germinating seeds at 22° C and at 10° C.
• Calculate function the rate of oxygen consumption for the germinating seeds at 22° C, using the time interval between 10 and 20 minutes.
• germinating seeds at 22° C and at 10° C
• germinating seeds and dry seeds
• Describe the essential features of an experimental apparatus that could be used to measure oxygen consumption by a small organism. Explain why each of these features is necessary.

Unit 5 (Meiosis, Mendelian Genetics, DNA Replication)

17.  State the conclusions reached by Mendel in his work on the inheritance of characteristics. Explain how each of the following deviates from these conclusions.

• Autosomal linkage.
• Sex-linked (X-linked) inheritance.
• Polygenic (multiple-gene) inheritance.

18.  Experiments by the following scientists provided critical information concerning DNA. Describe each classical experiment and indicate how it provided evidence for the chemical nature of the gene.

• Hershey and Chase- bacteriophage replication
• Griffith and Avery, MacLeod and McCarty- bacterial transformation
• Meselson and Stahl- DNA replication in bacteria

19.  Discuss Mendel’s laws of segregation and independent assortment. Explain how the events of meiosis I account for the observations that led Mendel to formulate these laws.

20.  An organism is heterozygous at two genetic loci on different chromosomes.

• Explain how these alleles are transmitted by the process of mitosis to daughter cells.
• Explain how these alleles are distributed by the process of meiosis to gametes.
• Explain how the behavior of these two pairs of homologous chromosomes during meiosis provides the physical basis for Mendel’s two laws of inheritance.

Labeled diagrams that are explained in your answer may be useful.

Unit 6 (Protein Synthesis, Gene Expression, DNA Technology)

21.  A portion of specific DNA molecule consists of the following sequence of nucleotide triplets.

TAC GAA CTT GGG TCC

This DNA sequence codes for the following short polypeptide.

methionine – leucine – glutamic acid – proline – arginine

Describe the steps in the synthesis of this polypeptide. What would be the effect of a deletion or an addition in one of the DNA nucleotides? What would be the effects of a substitution in one of the nucleotides?

22.  Describe the operon hypothesis and discuss how it explains the control of messenger RNA production and the regulation of protein synthesis in bacterial cells.

23.  Scientists seeking to determine which molecule is responsible for the transmission of characteristics from one generation to the next knew that the molecule must (1) copy itself precisely, (2) be stable but able to be changed, and (3) be complex enough to determine the organism’s phenotype.

• Explain how DNA meets each of the three criteria stated above.
• Select one of the criteria stated above and describe experimental evidence used to determine that DNA is the hereditary material.

24.  Describe the biochemical composition, structure, and replication of DNA. Discuss how recombinant DNA techniques may be used to correct a point mutation.

25.  Describe the production and processing of a protein that will be exported from a eukaryotic cell. Begin with the separation of the messenger RNA from the DNA template and end with the release of the protein at the plasma membrane.

26.  Describe the steps of protein synthesis, beginning with the attachment of a messenger RNA molecule to the small subunit of a ribosome and ending generalized with the release of the polypeptide from the ribosome. Include in your answer a discussion of how the different types of RNA function in this process.

27.  The diagram below shows a segment of DNA with a total length of 4,900 base pairs. The arrows indicate reaction sites for two restriction enzymes (enzyme X and enzyme Y).

• Explain how the principles of gel electrophoresis allow for the separation of DNA fragments.
• DNA digested with only enzyme X
• DNA digested with only enzyme Y
• DNA digested with enzyme X and enzyme Y combined
• Undigested DNA
• The mechanism of action of restriction enzymes.
• The different results you would expect if a mutation occurred at the recognition site for enzyme Y.

28.  By using the techniques of genetic engineering, scientists are able to modify genetic materials so that a particular gene of interest from one cell can be incorporated into a different cell.

• Describe a procedure by which this can be done.
• Explain the purpose of each step of your procedure.
• Describe how you could determine whether the gene was successfully incorporated.
• Describe an example of how gene transfer and incorporation have been used in biomedical or commercial applications.

29.  Assume that a particular genetic condition in a mammalian species causes an inability to digest starch. This disorder occurs with equal frequency in males and females. In most cases, neither parent of affected offspring has the condition.

• Describe the most probable pattern of inheritance for this condition. Explain your reasoning. Include in your discussion a sample cross(es) sufficient to verify your proposed pattern.
• Explain how a mutation could cause this inability to digest starch.
• Describe how modern techniques of molecular biology could be used to determine whether the mutant allele is present in a given individual.

Unit 7 (Evolution, Population Genetics, Speciation)

29.  Describe the special relationship between the two terms in each of the following pairs.

• Convergent evolution of organisms and Australia.
• Blood groups and genetic drift.
• Birds of prey and DDT.

30.  Describe the modern theory of evolution and discuss how it is supported by evidence from two of the following areas.

• population genetics
• molecular biology
• comparative anatomy and embryology

31.  Describe the process of speciation. Include in your discussion the factors that may contribute to the maintenance of genetic isolation.

32.  Do the following with reference to the Hardy-Weinberg model.

• Indicate the conditions under which allelic frequencies (p and q) remain constant from one generation to the next.
• Calculate, showing all work, the frequencies of the alleles and the frequencies of the genotypes in a population of 100,000 rabbits, of which 25,000 are white and 75,000 are agouti. (In rabbits the white color is due to a recessive allele, w, and the agouti is due to a dominant all, W.)
• If the homozygous dominant condition were to become lethal, what would happen to the allelic and genotypic frequencies in the rabbit population after two generations?

33.  Evolution is one of the major unifying themes of modern biology.

• Explain the mechanisms that lead to evolutionary change.
• Bacterial resistance to antibodies.
• Comparative biochemistry.
• The fossil record.

34.  Genetic variation is the raw material for evolution.

• Explain three cellular and/or molecular mechanisms that introduce variation into the gene pool of a plant or animal population.
• Explain the evolutionary mechanisms that can change the composition of the gene pool.

35.  In a laboratory population of diploid, sexually reproducing organisms a certain trait is studied. This trait is determined by a single autosomal gene and is expressed as two phenotypes. A new population was created by crossing 51 pure breeding (homozygous) dominant individuals with 49 pure breeding (homozygous) individuals. After four generations, the following results were obtained.

• Identify an organism that might have been used to perform this experiment, and explain why this organism is a good choice for conducting this experiment.
• On the basis of the data, propose a hypothesis that explains the change in phenotypic frequency between generation 1 and generation 3.
• Is there evidence indicating whether or not this population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Explain.

 Unit 8 (Chemical Evolution, Prokaryotes, Eukaryote Evolution, Protista)

36.  Scientists recently have proposed a reorganization of the phylogenetic system of classification to include the domain, a new taxonomic category higher (more inclusive) than the Kingdom category, as shown in the following diagram.

Universal Ancestor

Domain Bacteria             Domain Archaea Domain Eukarya

(Eubacteria)             (Archaebacteria) (Eukaryotes)

• describe how this classification scheme presents different conclusions about the relationships among living organisms than those presented by the previous five-kingdom system of classification
• describe three kinds of evidence that were used to develop the taxonomic scheme above, and explain how this evidence was used. The evidence may be structural, physiological, molecular, and/or genetic.
• four of the characteristics of the universal ancestor.

Unit 9 (Introduction to Plants, Fungi, Invertebrates)

37.  In the life cycles of a fern and a flowering plant, compare and contrast each of the following:

• The gametophyte generation.
• Sperm transport and fertilization.
• Embryo protection.

38.  Describe the differences between the terms in each of the following pairs.

• Coelomate versus acoelomate body plan.
• Protostome versus deuterostome development.
• Radial versus bilateral symmetry.
• Explain how each of these pairs of features was important in constructing the phylogenetic tree shown below. Use specific examples from the tree in your discussion.

Unit 10 (Vertebrates, Basic Animal Structure and Function)

39.  Select two of the following three pairs and discuss the evolutionary relationships between the two members of each pair you have chosen. In your discussion include structural adaptations and the functional significance.

Pair A: green algae—vascular plants

Pair B: prokaryotes—eukaryotes

Pair C: amphibians—reptiles

Unit 11 (Animal Nutrition, Circulation, Respiration, Immune System)

40.  Describe the structure of a mammalian respiratory system. Include in your discussion the mechanisms of inspiration and expiration.

41.  Describe the processes of fat and protein digestion and product absorption as they occur in the human stomach and small intestine. Include a discussion of the enzymatic reactions involved.

42.  Describe the following mechanisms of response to foreign materials in the human body.

• The antigen-antibody response to a skin graft from another person.
• The reactions of the body leading to inflammation of a wound infected by bacteria.

43.  Discuss the processes of exchange of O2 and CO2 that occur at the alveoli and muscle cells of mammals. Include in your answer a description of the transport of these gases in the blood.

44.  Many physioligical changes occur during exercise.

• Design a controlled experiment to test the hypothesis that an exercise session causes short-term increases in heart rat and breathing rate in humans.
• Explain how at least three organ systems are affected by this increased physical activity and discuss interactions among these systems.

45.  The graph below shows the response of the human immune system to exposure to an antigen. Use this graph to answer part a and part b of this question.

• Describe the events that occur during period I as the immune system responds to the initial exposure to the antigen.
• Describe the events that occur during period II following a second exposure to the same antigen.
• Explain how infection by the AIDS virus (HIV) affects the function of both T and B lymphocytes.

Unit 12 (Homeostasis, Reproduction, Development)

47.  Discuss the processes of cleavage, gastrulation, and neurulation in the frog embryo; tell what each process accomplishes. Describe an experiment that illustrates the importance of induction in development.

48.  The evolutionary success of organisms depends on reproduction. Some groups of organisms reproduce asexually, some reproduce sexually, while others reproduce both sexually and asexually.

• Using THREE difference organisms, give an example of one organism that reproduces sexually, one that reproduces asexually, and one that reproduces BOTH sexually and asexually. For each organism given as an example, describe two reproductive adaptations. These adaptations may be behavioral, structural, and/or functional.
• What environmental conditions would favor sexual reproduction? Explain. What environmental conditions would favor asexual reproduction? Explain.

Unit 13 (Endocrine System, Nervous System, Sensory and Motor Mechanisms)

49.  Discuss the sources and actions of each of the following pairs of hormones in humans and describe the feedback mechanisms that control their release.

• Insulin—glucagon
• Parathyroid hormone—calcitonin
• Thyrotropin (TSH)—thyroxine (T4)

50.  Beginning at the presynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction, describe the physical and biochemical events involved in the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber. Include the structure of the fiber in your discussion.

52.  Describe the negative and positive feedback loops, and discuss how feedback mechanisms regulate each of the following.

• The menstrual cycle in nonpregnant human female.
• Blood glucose levels in humans.

53.  Discuss how cellular structures, including the plasma membrane, specialized endoplasmic reticulum, cytoskeletal elements, and mitochondria, function together in the contraction of skeletal muscle cells.

54.  Structure and function are related in the various organ systems of animals. Select two of the following four organ systems in vertebrates:

• respiratory

For each of the two systems you choose, discuss the structure and function of two adaptations that aid in the transport or exchange of molecules (or ions). Be sure to relate structure to function in each example.

Unit 14 (Plant Structure and Function)

55.  Relate the structure of an angiosperm leaf to each of the following:

• Adaptations for photosynthesis and food storage.
• Adaptations for food translocation and water transport.
• Specialized adaptations to a desert environment.

56.  Define the following plant responses and explain the mechanism of control for each. Cite experimental evidence as part of your discussion.

• Phototropism
• Photoperiodism

57.  Describe the structure of a bean seed and discuss its germination to the seedling stage. Include in your essay hormonal controls, structural changes, and tissue differentiation.

58.  Describe the effects of plant hormones on plant growth and development. Design an experiment to demonstrate the effect of one of these plant hormones on plant growth and development.

59.  Trace the pathway in a flowering plant as the water moves from the soil through the tissues of the root, stem, and leaves to the atmosphere. Explain the mechanisms involved in conducting water through these tissues.

60.  Discuss the adaptations that have enabled flowering plants to overcome the following problems associated with life on land.

• The absence of an aquatic environment for reproduction.
• The absence of an aquatic environment to support the plant body.
• Dehydration of the plant.

61.  A group of students designed an experiment to measure transpiration rates in a particular species of herbaceous plant. Plants were divided into four groups and were exposed to the following conditions.

The cumulative water loss due to transpiration of water from each plant was measured at 10-minute intervals for 30 minutes. Water loss was expressed as milliliters of water per square centimeter of leaf surface area. The data for all plants in Group I (room conditions) were averaged. The average cumulative water loss by the plants in Group I is presented in the table below.

• Construct and label a graph using the data for Group I. Using the same set of axes, draw and label three additional lines representing the results that you would predict for Groups II, III, and IV.
• Explain how biological and physical processes are responsible for the difference between each of your predictions and the data for Group I.
• Explain how the concept of water potential is used to account for the movement of water from the plant stem to the atmosphere during transpiration.

62.  Numerous environmental variables influence plant growth. Three students each planted a seedling of the same genetic variety in the same type of container with equal amounts of soil from the same source. Their goal was to maximize their seedling’s growth by manipulating environmental conditions. Their data are shown below.

• Identify three different environmental variables that could account for differences in the mass of seedlings at day 30. Then choose one of these variables and design an experiment to test the hypothesis that your variable affects growth of these seedlings.
• Discuss the results you would expect if your hypothesis is correct. Then provide a physiological explanation for the effect of your variable on plant growth.

Unit 15 (Ecology)

63.  Define and explain the role of each of the following in social behavior.

• Territoriality.
• Dominance hierarchies.
• Courtship behavior.

64.  Describe the trophic levels in a typical ecosystem. Discuss the flow of energy through the ecosystem, the relationship between the different trophic levels, and the factors that limit the number of trophic levels.

65.  Describe and give an example of each of the following. Include in your discussion the selection advantage of each.

• Pheromones.
• Stereotyped behavior (instinct).

66.  Describe the process of ecological succession from a pioneer community to a climax community. Include in your answer a discussion of species diversity and interactions, accumulation of biomass, and energy flow.

67.  Describe releasers, imprinting, and communications, as each of these terms relates to animal behavior. You may include in your answer a discussion of the classical studies of Niko Tinbergen, Konrad Lorenz, and Karl von Frisch.

68.  Describe the biogeochemical cycles of carbon and nitrogen. Trace these elements from the point of their release from a decaying animal to their incorporation into a living animal.

69.  Using an example for each, discuss the following ecological concepts.

• Energy flow between trophic levels.
• Limiting factors.
• Carrying capacity.

70.  Living organisms play an important role in the recycling of many elements within an ecosystem. Discuss how various types of organisms and their biochemical reactions contribute to the recycling of either carbon or nitrogen in an ecosystem. Include in your answer one way in which human activity has an impact in the nutrient cycle you have chosen.

71.  Survival depends on the ability of an organism to respond to changes in its environment. Some plants flower in response to changes in day length. Some mammals may run or fight when frightened. For both of these examples, describe the physiological mechanisms involved in the response.

72.  Interdependence in nature is illustrated by the transfer of energy through trophic levels. The diagram below depicts the transfer of energy in a food web of an Arctic lake located in Alaska (J )

• Choosing organisms from four different trophic levels of this food web as examples, explain how energy is obtained at each trophic level.
• Describe the efficiency of energy transfer between trophic levels and discuss how the amount of energy available at each trophic level affects the structure of the ecosystem.
• If the cells in the dead terrestrial plant material that washed into the lake contained a commercially produced toxin, what would be the likely effects of this toxin on this food web? Explain.

For the data above, provide information on each of the following.

• Summarize the pattern.
• Identify THREE physiological or environmental variables that could cause the slugs to vary their distance from each other.
• Explain how each variable could bring about the observed pattern of distribution.

Choose ONE of the variables that you identified and design a controlled experiment to test your hypothetical explanation. Describe results that would support or refute your hypothesis.

Cumulative Essays

74.  Describe how the following adaptations have increased the evolutionary success of the organisms that possess them. Include in your discussion the structure and function related to each adaptation.

• C4 metabolism
• Amniotic egg
• Four-chambered heart

75.  Describe the anatomical and functional similarities and difference within each of the following pairs of structures.

• Artery—vein
• Small intestine—colon
• Skeletal muscle—cardiac muscle
• Anterior pituitary—posterior pituitary

76.  Discuss how each of the following has contributed to the evolutionary success of the organisms in which they are found.

• mammalian placenta

77.  Angiosperms (flowering plants) and vertebrates obtain nutrients from their environment in different ways.

• Discuss the type of nutrition and the nutritional requirements of angiosperms and vertebrates.
• Describe 2 structural adaptations in angiosperms for obtaining nutrients from the environment. Relate structure to function.
• Interdependence in nature is evident in symbiosis. Explain tow symbiotic relationships that aid in nutrient uptake, using examples from angiosperms and/or vertebrates. (Both examples may be angiosperms, both may be vertebrates, or one may be from each group.

78.  The problem of survival of animals on land are very different from those of survival of animals in an aquatic environment. Describe four problems associated with animal survival in terrestrial environments but not in aquatic environments. For each problem, explain an evolutionary solution.

79.  The survival of organisms depends on regulatory mechanisms at various levels. Choose THREE from the following examples. Explain how each is regulated.

• The expression of a gene.
• The activity of an enzyme.
• The cell cycle.
• The internal water balance of a plant.
• The density of a population.

80.  Photosynthesis and cellular respiration recycle oxygen in ecosystems. Respond to TWO (and only two) of the following:

• Explain how the metabolic processes of cellular respiration and photosynthesis recycle oxygen.
• Discuss the structural adaptations that function in oxygen exchange between each of the following organisms and its environment: a plant; an insect; a fish.
• Trace a molecule of O2 from the environment to a muscle cell in a vertebrate of your choice.

81.  Biological recognition is important in many processes at the molecular, cellular, tissue, and organismal levels. Select three of the following, and for each of the three that you have chose, explain how the process of recognition occurs and give an example of each.

• Organisms recognize others as members of their own species.
• Neurotransmitters are recognized in the synapse.
• Antigens trigger antibody response.
• Nucleic acids are complementary.
• Target cells respond to specific hormones.

82.  Communication occurs among the cells in a multicellular organism. Choose THREE of the following examples of cell-to-cell communication, and for each example, describe the communication that occurs and the types of responses that result from this communication.

• communication between two plant cells
• communication between two immune-system cells
• communication either between a neuron and another neuron, or between a neuron and a muscle cell
• communication between a specific endocrine-gland cell and its target cell

Find what you need to study

AP Biology Free Response Questions (FRQ) – Past Prompts

34 min read • december 29, 2020

Dylan Black

We’ve compiled a list of a bunch of the AP Biology past prompts! The AP Bio FRQs are 60% of the exam including 2 long questions and 4 short questions. It’s important that you understand the rubrics and question styles going into the exam. Use this list to practice!

By practicing with previously released free-response questions (FRQs), you’ll build critical-thinking and analytical skills that will prepare you for the exam. These past prompts have been designed to help you connect concepts and ideas to each other while applying your knowledge to real-life scenarios. You’ll also learn how to tackle the exam in a better format, and you won’t be surprised come test day with certain questions.

All recredit to College Board.

👉 AP Bio 2019 FRQs

Long FRQ #1

Gene expression and regulation, ecology (gene expression and symbiosis).

Auxins are plant hormones that coordinate several aspects of root growth and development. Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) is an auxin that is usually synthesized from the amino acid tryptophan (Figure 1). Gene Trp-T encodes an enzyme that converts tryptophan to indole-3-pyruvic acid (I3PA), which is then converted to IAA by an enzyme encoded by the gene YUC .

Circle ONE arrow that represents transcription on the template pathway. Identify the molecule that would be absent if enzyme YUC is nonfunctional.

Predict how the deletion of one base pair in the fourth codon of the coding region of gene Trp-T would most likely affect the production of IAA. Justify your prediction.

Explain one feedback mechanism by which a cell could prevent production of too much IAA without limiting I3PA production

Rhizobacteria are a group of bacteria that live in nodules on plant roots. Rhizobacteria can produce IAA and convert atmospheric nitrogen into forms that can be used by plants. Plants release carbon-containing molecules into the nodules. Based on this information, identify the most likely ecological relationship between plants and rhizobacteria. Describe ONE advantage to the bacteria of producing IAA.

A researcher removed a plant nodule and identified several “cheater” rhizobacteria that do not produce IAA or fix nitrogen. Describe the evolutionary advantage of being a bacterial cheater in a population composed predominantly of noncheater bacteria. Plants can adjust the amount of carbon-containing molecules released into nodules in response to the amount of nitrogen fixed in the nodule. Predict the change in the bacterial population that would cause the plant to reduce the amount of carbon-containing molecules provided to the nodule.

Long FRQ #2

Units 2 and 8 (competition and osmoregulation).

A student studying two different aquatic, plant-eating, unicellular protist species (species A and B) designed an experiment to investigate the ecological relationship between the two species (Table 1).

In treatment group I, the student placed 10 individuals of species A into a container with liquid growth medium and 10 individuals of species B into a separate container with an equal amount of the same liquid growth medium. In treatment group II, the student placed 5 individuals of each species into a single container with the liquid growth medium. The student then maintained the containers under the same environmental conditions and recorded the number of individuals in each population at various time points. The results are shown in Table 2.

The growth curves for species B in group I and for species A in group II (shaded columns) have been plotted on the template. Use the template to complete an appropriately labeled line graph to illustrate the growth of species A in treatment group I and species B in treatment group II (unshaded columns).

As shown in the table, the student established treatment group II with 5 individuals of each species. Provide reasoning for the reduced initial population sizes.

The student claims that species A and B compete for the same food source. Provide TWO pieces of evidence from the data that support the student’s claim.

Predict TWO factors that will most likely limit the population growth of species A in treatment group I.

Many protists contain an organelle called a contractile vacuole that pumps water out of the cell. The student repeated the experiment using a growth medium with a lower solute concentration. Predict how the activity of the contractile vacuole will change under the new experimental conditions. Justify your prediction.

Short FRQ #1

Cellular energetics, heredity (cellular respiration and sex linked inheritance).

The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC) catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA, a substrate for the Krebs (citric acid) cycle. The rate of pyruvate conversion is greatly reduced in individuals with PDC deficiency, a rare disorder.

Identify the cellular location where PDC is most active.

Make a claim about how PDC deficiency affects the amount of NADH produced by glycolysis AND the amount of NADH produced by the Krebs (citric acid) cycle in a cell. Provide reasoning to support your claims based on the position of the PDC-catalyzed reaction in the sequence of the cellular respiration pathway.

PDC deficiency is caused by mutations in the PDHA1 gene, which is located on the X chromosome. A male with PDC deficiency and a homozygous female with no family history of PDC deficiency have a male offspring. Calculate the probability that the male offspring will have PDC deficiency.

Short FRQ #2

Cell communication and cell cycle (cell signaling).

Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that can activate an action potential in a postsynaptic neuron (Figures 1 and 2). A researcher is investigating the effect of a particular neurotoxin that causes the amount of acetylcholine released from presynaptic neurons to increase.

Describe the immediate effect of the neurotoxin on the number of action potentials in a postsynaptic neuron. Predict whether the maximum membrane potential of the postsynaptic neuron will increase, decrease, or stay the same.

The researcher proposes two models, A and B, for using acetylcholinesterase (AChE), an enzyme that degrades acetylcholine, to prevent the effect of the neurotoxin. In model A, AChE is added to the synapse. In model B, AChE is added to the cytoplasm of the postsynaptic cell. Predict the effectiveness of EACH proposed model. Provide reasoning to support your predictions.

Short FRQ #3

Natural selection (cladograms and evolutionary relationships).

A researcher studying the evolutionary relationship among five primate species obtained data from a sequence of mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) from a representative individual of each species. The researcher then calculated the percent divergence in the sequences between each pair of primate species (Table 1).

Based on fossil data, the researcher estimates that humans and their most closely related species in the data set diverged approximately seven million years ago. Using these data, calculate the rate of mtDNA percent divergence per million years between humans and their most closely related species in the data set. Round your answer to two decimal places.

Using the data in the table, construct a cladogram on the template provided. Provide reasoning for the placement of gibbons as the outgroup on the cladogram.

On the cladogram, draw a circle around all of the species that are descended from the species indicated by the node within the square.

Short FRQ #4

Cell communication and cell cycle (gene expression).

The yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a single-celled organism. Amino acid synthesis in yeast cells occurs through metabolic pathways, and enzymes in the synthesis pathways are encoded by different genes. The synthesis of a particular amino acid can be prevented by mutation of a gene encoding an enzyme in the required pathway. A researcher conducted an experiment to determine the ability of yeast to grow on media that differ in amino acid content. Yeast can grow as both haploid and diploid cells. The researcher tested two different haploid yeast strains (Mutant 1 and Mutant 2), each of which has a single recessive mutation, and a haploid wild-type strain. The resulting data are shown in Table 1.

Identify the role of treatment I in the experiment.

Provide reasoning to explain how Mutant 1 can grow on treatment I medium but cannot grow on treatment III medium.

Yeast mate by fusing two haploid cells to make a diploid cell. In a second experiment, the researcher mates the Mutant 1 and Mutant 2 haploid strains to produce diploid cells. Using the table provided, predict whether the diploid cells will grow on each of the four media. Use a plus sign (+) to indicate growth and a minus sign (−) to indicate no growth.

Short FRQ #5

A researcher is studying patterns of gene expression in mice. The researcher collected samples from six different tissues in a healthy mouse and measured the amount of mRNA from six genes. The data are shown in Figure 1.

Based on the data provided, identify the gene that is most likely to encode a protein that is an essential component of glycolysis. Provide reasoning to support your identification.

The researcher observed that tissues with a high level of gene H mRNA did not always have gene H protein. Provide reasoning to explain how tissues with high gene H mRNA levels can have no gene H protein.

Short FRQ #6

Cell structure and function (cellular transport).

The petal color of the Mexican morning glory (Ipomoea tricolor ) changes from red to blue, and the petal cells swell during flower opening. The pigment heavenly blue anthocyanin is found in the vacuole of petal cells. Petal color is determined by the pH of the vacuole. A model of a morning glory petal cell before and after flower opening is shown in Table 1.

Identify the cellular component in the model that is responsible for the increase in the pH of the vacuole during flower opening AND describe the component’s role in changing the pH of the vacuole.

A researcher claims that the activation of the K+/H+ transport protein causes the vacuole to swell with water. Provide reasoning to support the researcher’s claim.

👉 AP Bio 2018 FRQs

Polar bears are highly adapted for life in cold climates around the North Pole. Brown bears, black bears, and pandas are found in warmer environments. Researchers collected complete mitochondrial DNA sequences from several populations of bears and constructed a phylogenetic tree to represent their evolutionary relatedness (Figure 1). A researcher studying adaptation in bears sequenced the nuclear gene encoding a lysosomal trafficking protein (LYST) in polar bears, brown bears, black bears, and panda bears. There are seven inferred amino acid substitutions that are found only in polar bears. Mutations that cause similar substitutions in the human LYST protein are associated with Chediak-Higashi syndrome, an autosomal recessive condition in which pigment is absent from the hair and eyes. The researcher used the inferred amino acid sequences to build the distance matrix shown in Table 1.

Use the phylogenetic tree in Figure 1 to estimate the age in hundreds of thousands of years of the most recent common ancestor of all brown bears. Identify the population of brown bears to which polar bears are most closely related based on the mitochondrial DNA sequence comparison. Identify two populations whose positions could be switched without affecting the relationships illustrated in the phylogenetic tree.

Construct a cladogram on the template to represent a model of the evolutionary relatedness among the bear species based on the differences in LYST protein sequences (Table 1). Circle the position on the cladogram that represents the out-group.

A student claims that mitochondrial DNA sequence comparisons provide a more accurate phylogeny of bear species than do LYST protein sequence comparisons. Provide ONE piece of reasoning to support the student’s claim.

A researcher genetically engineers a mouse strain by deleting the mouse lyst gene and replacing it with the polar bear lyst gene. Predict the most likely difference in phenotype of the transgenic mouse strain compared to the wild-type mouse strain. Justify your prediction.

Describe how the mutation in the lyst gene became common in the polar bear population. If the lyst gene were the only determinant of fur color, predict the percent of white offspring produced by a mating between a polar bear and a brown bear.

Cell Communication and Cell Cycle (Gene Regulation)

Some pathogenic bacteria enter cells, replicate, and spread to other cells, causing illness in the host organism. Host cells respond to these infections in a number of ways, one of which involves activating particular enzymatic pathways (Figure 1). Cells normally produce a steady supply of inactive caspase-1 protein. In response to intracellular pathogens, the inactive caspase-1 is cleaved and forms an active caspase-1 (step 1). Active caspase-1 can cleave two other proteins. When caspase-1 cleaves an inactive interleukin (step 2), the active portion of the interleukin is released from the cell. An interleukin is a signaling molecule that can activate the immune response. When caspase-1 cleaves gasdermin (step 3), the N-terminal portions of several gasdermin proteins associate in the cell membrane to form large, nonspecific pores. Researchers created the model in Figure 1 using data from cell fractionation studies. In the experiments, various parts of the cell were separated into fractions by mechanical and chemical methods. Specific proteins known to be located in different parts of the cell were used as markers to determine the location of other proteins. The table below shows the presence of known proteins in specific cellular fractions.

Describe the effect of inhibiting step 3 on the formation of pores AND on the release of interleukin from the cell.

Make a claim about how cleaving inactive caspase-1 results in activation of caspase-1. A student claims that preinfection production of inactive precursors shortens the response time of a cell to a bacterial infection. Provide ONE reason to support the student’s claim.

A student claims that the NF-kB protein is located in the cytoplasm until the protein is needed for transcription. Justify the student’s claim with evidence. Identify TWO fractions where N-terminal gasdermin would be found in cells infected with pathogenic bacteria.

Describe the most likely effect of gasdermin pore formation on water balance in the cell in a hypotonic environment.

Explain how gasdermin pore formation AND interleukin release contribute to an organism’s defense against a bacterial pathogen.

Seagrasses are aquatic plants that reproduce sexually. Male seagrass flowers produce sticky pollen that is carried by circulating water to female flowers, resulting in fertilization. A researcher claims that mobile aquatic invertebrates can also transfer pollen from male to female flowers in the absence of circulating water. To investigate this claim, the researcher set up aquariums to model the possible interactions between the invertebrates and seagrasses.

Use the symbols below and the template aquariums to demonstrate the experimental design for testing the researcher’s claim that mobile aquatic invertebrates can pollinate seagrass in the absence of circulating water. Draw the appropriate symbols in the negative control aquarium AND the experimental aquarium. Do not use any symbol more than once in the same aquarium.

Identify the dependent variable in the experiment. Predict the experimental results that would support the researcher’s claim that mobile aquatic invertebrates can also transfer pollen from male to female flowers in the absence of circulating water.

Cell Structure and Function (Cell Transport and Experimental Design)

The common bedbug ( Cimex lectularius ) is a species of insect that is becoming increasingly resistant to insecticides. Bedbugs possess several genes suspected of contributing to the resistance, including P450 , Abc8 , and Cps . To investigate the role of these genes in insecticide resistance, researchers deleted one or more of these genes in different strains of bedbugs, as indicated in Figure 1, and treated the strains with the insecticide beta-cyfluthrin. Each strain was genetically identical except for the deleted gene(s) and was equally fit in the absence of beta-cyfluthrin. The percent survival of each strain following beta-cyfluthrin treatment is shown in Figure 1.

Identify the control strain in the experiment. Use the means and confidence intervals in Figure 1 to justify the claim that Abc8 is effective at providing resistance to beta-cyfluthrin.

P450 encodes an enzyme that detoxifies insecticides. Abc8 encodes a transporter protein that pumps insecticides out of cells. Cps encodes an external structural protein located in the exoskeleton that greatly reduces the absorption of insecticides. Based on this information and the data in Figure 1, explain how a deletion of both P450 and Abc8 results in lower survival in bedbugs compared with a deletion of Cps only.

Ecology (Symbiotic Relationships)

Some birds, including great spotted cuckoos, lay their eggs in the nests of other birds, such as reed warblers. The warbler parents raise the unrelated chicks and provide them with food that would otherwise be given to their biological offspring. A researcher conducted an investigation to determine the type of relationship between warblers and cuckoos in an environment without predators. The researcher found that nests containing only warblers were more likely to be successful than nests containing warblers and cuckoos (data not shown). A successful nest is defined as a nest where at least one chick becomes an adult warbler. In some geographic areas, several species of nest predators are present. Researchers have found that cuckoo chicks, while in the nest, produce a smelly substance that deters nest predators. The substance does not remain in the nest if cuckoo chicks are removed. Figure 1 shows the probability that nests containing only warblers or containing both warblers and cuckoos will be successful in an environment with predators. In a follow-up experiment, the researchers added cuckoos to a nest that contained only warblers (group 1) and removed cuckoos from a nest containing warblers and cuckoos (group 2).

Describe the symbiotic relationship that exists between the cuckoo and warbler in an environment without predators.

On the template provided, draw bars in the appropriate locations to predict the relative probability of success for the nest in the presence of predators where:

the cuckoos were added to the nest containing only warblers (group 1)

the cuckoos were removed from the nest containing warblers and cuckoos (group 2)

Identify the symbiotic relationship that exists between the cuckoo and the warbler in the presence of predators.

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that is associated with defects in the CFTR protein. The CFTR protein is a gated ion channel that requires ATP binding in order to allow chloride ions (Cl−) to diffuse across the membrane.

In the provided model of a cell, draw arrows to describe the pathway for production of a normal CFTR protein from gene expression to final cellular location.

Identify the most likely cellular location of the ribosomes that synthesize CFTR protein.

Identify the most likely cellular location of a mutant CFTR protein that has an amino acid substitution in the ATP-binding site.

Heredity (Sex Linked Heredity)

In the tongue sole fish (Cynoglossus semilaevis), sex is determined by a combination of genetics and environmental temperature. Genetically male fish have two Z chromosomes (ZZ), and genetically female fish have one Z chromosome and one W chromosome (ZW). When fish are raised at 22℃, ZZ fish develop into phenotypic males and ZW fish develop into phenotypic females. However, when fish are raised at 28℃, the Z chromosome is modified (denoted as Z*). Z*W individuals develop as phenotypic males that are fertile and can pass on the Z* chromosome to their offspring even when the offspring are raised at 22℃. A cross between a ZW female and a Z*Z male is shown in the Punnett square below.

Predict the percent of phenotypic males among the F1 offspring of the cross shown in the Punnett square if the offspring are raised at 22℃.

At least one Z or Z* chromosome is necessary for survival of the fish. A researcher crossed two fish and observed a 2:1 ratio of males to females among the offspring. Based on the information, identify the genotype of the male parent in the cross. Describe ONE fitness cost to the female of mating with this particular male.

Cell Communication and Cell Cycle

Acetylcholine receptor (AChR) proteins are found at the synapse between neurons and skeletal muscle cells. Acetylcholine released from neurons binds to a specific site on the receptor proteins, which causes an ion channel in the receptors to open and allow sodium ions (Na+) to enter muscle cells. The resulting depolarization of muscle cells initiates muscle contractions. Another molecule, nicotine, can also bind to certain types of AChR proteins and activate the receptors.A researcher is investigating two different types of AChR proteins: type 1 and type 2. To determine which stimuli activate the receptors, the researcher exposes muscle cells expressing the different types of receptor proteins to stimuli and observes the results indicated in Table 1.

Describe the difference in the structure AND function between AChR type 1 and AChR type 2.

Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine in the synapse. Describe the effect of inhibiting acetylcholinesterase on the muscle cells with AChR type 2.

👉 AP Bio 2017 FRQs

Experimental Design and Cellular Energetics

In flowering plants, pollination is a process that leads to the fertilization of an egg and the production of seeds. Some flowers attract pollinators, such as bees, using visual and chemical cues. When a bee visits a flower, in addition to transferring pollen, the bee can take nectar from the flower and use it to make honey for the colony. Nectar contains sugar, but certain plants also produce caffeine in the nectar. Caffeine is a bitter-tasting compound that can be toxic to insects at high concentrations. To investigate the role of caffeine in nectar, a group of researchers studied the effect of 0.1 mM caffeine on bee behavior. The results of an experiment to test the effect of caffeine on bees’ memory of a nectar source are shown in Table 1.

On the axes provided, construct an appropriately labeled graph to illustrate the effect of caffeine on the probability of bees revisiting a nectar source (memory).

Based on the results, describe the effect of caffeine on each of the following:

Short-term (10 minute) memory of a nectar source

Long-term (24 hour) memory of a nectar source

Design an experiment using artificial flowers to investigate potential negative effects of increasing caffeine concentrations in nectar on the number of floral visits by bees. Identify the null hypothesis, an appropriate control treatment, and the predicted results that could be used to reject the null hypothesis.

Researchers found that nectar with caffeine tends to have a lower sugar content than nectar without caffeine. Plants use less energy to produce the caffeine in nectar than they do to produce the sugar in nectar. Propose ONE benefit to plants that produce nectar with caffeine and a lower sugar content. Propose ONE cost to bees that visit the flowers of plants that produce nectar with caffeine and a lower sugar content.

Ecology (Ecological Succession)

Fires frequently occur in some ecosystems and can destroy all above-ground vegetation. Many species of plants in these ecosystems respond to compounds in smoke that regulate seed germination after a major fire. Karrikins (KAR) and trimethylbutenolides (TMB) are water-soluble compounds found in smoke that are deposited in the soil as a result of a fire. KAR and TMB bind to receptor proteins in a seed. In a study on the effects of smoke on seeds, researchers recorded the timing and percent of seed germination in the presence of various combinations of KAR and TMB. The results are shown in Figure 1. In a second investigation into the effect of available water on seed germination after a fire, researchers treated seeds with KAR or TMB. The treated seeds were then divided into two treatment groups. One group received a water rinse and the other group received no water rinse. The seeds were then incubated along with a group of control seeds that were not treated. The results are shown in the table.

The researchers made the following claims about the effect of KAR and the effect of TMB on seed germination relative to the control treatment.

KAR alone affects the timing of seed germination.

KAR alone affects the percentage of seeds that germinate.

TMB alone affects the timing of seed germination.

TMB alone affects the percentage of seeds that germinate.

Provide support using data from Figure 1 for each of the researchers’ claims.

Make a claim about the effect of rinsing on the binding of KAR to the receptor in the seed and about the effect of rinsing on the binding of TMB to the receptor in the seed. Identify the appropriate treatment groups and results from the table that, when compared with the controls, provide support for each claim.

There is intense competition by plants to successfully colonize areas that have been recently cleared by a fire. Describe ONE advantage of KAR regulation and ONE advantage of TMB regulation to plants that live in an ecosystem with regular fires.

Cell Communication and Cell Cycle (Gene Regulation and Expression)

Gibberellin is the primary plant hormone that promotes stem elongation. GA 3-beta-hydroxylase (GA3H) is the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction that converts a precursor of gibberellin to the active form of gibberellin. A mutation in the GA3H gene results in a short plant phenotype. When a pure-breeding tall plant is crossed with a pure-breeding short plant, all offspring in the F1 generation are tall. When the F1 plants are crossed with each other, 75 percent of the plants in the F2 generation are tall and 25 percent of the plants are short.

The wild-type allele encodes a GA3H enzyme with alanine (Ala), a nonpolar amino acid, at position 229. The mutant allele encodes a GA3H enzyme with threonine (Thr), a polar amino acid, at position 229. Describe the effect of the mutation on the enzyme and provide reasoning to support how this mutation results in a short plant phenotype in homozygous recessive plants.

Using the codon chart provided, predict the change in the codon sequence that resulted in the substitution of alanine for threonine at amino acid position 229.

Describe how individuals with one (heterozygous) or two (homozygous) copies of the wild-type GA3H allele can have the same phenotype.

Ecology (Energy Diagrams)

The table above shows how much each organism in an aquatic ecosystem relies on various food sources. The rows represent the organisms in the ecosystem, and the columns represent the food source. The percentages indicate the proportional dietary composition of each organism. High percentages indicate strong dependence of an organism on a food source.

Based on the food sources indicated in the data table, construct a food web in the template below. Write the organism names on the appropriate lines AND draw the arrows necessary to indicate the energy flow between organisms in the ecosystem.

In an effort to control the number of midges, an area within the ecosystem was sprayed with the fungus Metarhizium anisopliae, which significantly decreased the midge population. Based on the data in the table, predict whether the spraying of the fungus will have the greatest short-term impact on the population of the stoneflies, the caddisflies, or the hellgrammites. Justify your prediction.

Cellular Energetics

Microcystis aeruginosis is a freshwater photosynthetic cyanobacterium. When temperatures increase and nutrients are readily available in its pond habitat, M. aeruginosis undergoes rapid cell division and forms an extremely large, visible mass of cells called an algal bloom. M. aeruginosis has a short life span and is decomposed by aerobic bacteria and fungi. Identify the metabolic pathway and the organism that is primarily responsible for the change in oxygen level in the pond between times I and II AND between times III and IV.

Cell Communication and Cell Cycle (DNA Structure and Function)

A comet assay is a technique used to determine the amount of double-strand breaks in DNA (DNA damage) in cells. The nucleus of an individual cell is placed on a microscope slide coated with an agarose gel. An electric current is applied to the gel that causes DNA to move (electrophoresis), and the DNA is stained with a fluorescent dye. When viewed using a microscope, undamaged DNA from the nucleus appears as a round shape (the head), and the fragments of damaged DNA extend out from the head (the tail). The length of the tail corresponds to the amount of the damage in the DNA (see Figure 1).

To explain the movement of DNA fragments in the comet assay, identify one property of DNA and provide reasoning to support how the property contributes to the movement during the comet assay technique.

In a different experiment, cells are treated with a chemical mutagen that causes only nucleotide substitutions in DNA. Predict the likely results of a comet assay for this treatment.

Cellular Energetics (Anaerobic Respiration)

Many species of bacteria grow in the mouths of animals and can form biofilms on teeth (plaque). Within plaque, the outer layers contain high levels of oxygen and the layers closest to the tooth contain low levels of oxygen. The surface of the tooth is covered in a hard layer of enamel, which can be dissolved under acidic conditions. When the enamel breaks down, the bacteria in plaque can extract nutrients from the tooth and cause cavities.Certain types of bacteria (e.g., Streptococcus mutans) thrive in the innermost anaerobic layers of the plaque and are associated with cavities. Other types of bacteria (Streptococcus sanguinis) compete with S. mutans but are unable to thrive in acidic environments.

Identify the biochemical pathway S. mutans uses for metabolizing sugar and describe how the pathway contributes to the low pH in the inner layers of plaque.

Normal tooth brushing effectively removes much of the plaque from the flat surfaces of teeth but cannot reach the surfaces between teeth. Many commercial toothpastes contain alkaline components, which raise the pH of the mouth. Predict how the population sizes of S. mutans AND S. sanguinis in the bacterial community in the plaque between the teeth are likely to change when these toothpastes are used.

Cell Structure and Function Cell Transport

Estrogens are small hydrophobic lipid hormones that promote cell division and the development of reproductive structures in mammals. Estrogens passively diffuse across the plasma membrane and bind to their receptor proteins in the cytoplasm of target cells.

Describe ONE characteristic of the plasma membrane that allows estrogens to passively cross the membrane.

In a laboratory experiment, a researcher generates antibodies that bind to purified estrogen receptors extracted from cells. The researcher uses the antibodies in an attempt to treat estrogen-dependent cancers but finds that the treatment is ineffective. Explain the ineffectiveness of the antibodies for treating estrogen-dependent cancers.

👉 AP Bio 2016 FRQs

Cell Communication and Cell Cycle (Gene Regulation and Experimental Design)

Leucine aminopeptidases (LAPs) are found in all living organisms and have been associated with the response of the marine mussel, Mytilus edulis , to changes in salinity. LAPs are enzymes that remove N-terminal amino acids from proteins and release the free amino acids into the cytosol. To investigate the evolution of LAPs in wild populations of M. edulis , researchers sampled adult mussels from several different locations along a part of the northeast coast of the United States, as shown in Figure 1. The researchers then determined the percent of individuals possessing a particular lap allele, lap94 , in mussels from each sample site (table 1).

On the axes provided, construct an appropriately labeled bar graph to illustrate the observed frequencies of the lap 94 allele in the study populations.

Based on the data, describe the most likely effect of salinity on the frequency of the lap 94 allele in the marine mussel populations in Long Island Sound. Predict the likely lap 94 allele frequency at a sampling site between site 1 and site 2 in Long Island Sound.

Describe the most likely effect of LAP94 activity on the osmolarity of the cytosol. Describe the function of LAP94 in maintaining water balance in the mussels living in the Atlantic Ocean.

Marine mussel larvae are evenly dispersed throughout the study area by water movement. As larvae mature, they attach to the rocks in the water. Explain the differences in lap94 allele frequency among adult mussel populations at the sample sites despite the dispersal of larvae throughout the entire study area. Predict the likely effect on distribution of mussels in Long Island Sound if the lap94 allele was found in all of the mussels in the population. Justify your prediction.

Cell Communication and Cell Cycle and Ecology (Gene Regulation, Ecology, and Experimental Design)

Bacteria can be cultured in media with a carefully controlled nutrient composition. The graph above shows the growth of a bacterial population in a medium with limiting amounts of two nutrients, I and II.

Estimate the maximum population density in cells/mL for the culture. Using the data, describe what prevents further growth of the bacterial population in the culture.

Using the data, calculate the growth rate in cells/mL×hour of the bacterial population between hours 2 and 4.

Identify the preferred nutrient source of the bacteria in the culture over the course of the experiment. Use the graph to justify your response. Propose ONE advantage of the nutrient preference for an individual bacterium.

Describe how nutrient I most likely regulates the genes for metabolism of nutrient I and the genes for metabolism of nutrient II. Provide TWO reasons that the population does not grow between hours 5 and 6.

The graph above illustrates the percent dry weight of different parts of a particular annual plant (plants that live less than one year) from early May to late August. The percent dry weight can be used to estimate the amount of energy a plant uses to produce its leaves, vegetative buds, stems, roots, and reproductive parts (seeds, receptacles, and flowers).

Identify the direct source of the energy used for plant growth during the first week of May, and identify the part of the plant that grew the most during the same period.

Based on the data on the graph, estimate the percent of the total energy that the plant has allocated to the growth of leaves on the first day of July.

Compared with perennials (plants that live more than two years), annual plants often allocate a much greater percentage of their total energy to growth of their reproductive parts in any given year. Propose ONE evolutionary advantage of the energy allocation strategy in annual plants compared with that in perennial plants.

The figure represents the process of expression of gene X in a eukaryotic cell.

The primary transcript in the figure is 15 kilobases (kb) long, but the mature mRNA is 7 kb in length. Describe the modification that most likely resulted in the 8 kb difference in length of the mature mRNA molecule. Identify in your response the location in the cell where the change occurs.

Predict the length of the mature gene X mRNA if the full-length gene is introduced and expressed in prokaryotic cells. Justify your prediction.

Ecology (Ecological Relationships)

The graph above shows the mass of plants from two different species over time. The plants grew while attached to each other. The plants were separated at the time indicated by the vertical line in the graph. Using template 1, graph the predicted shape of the plant-mass lines after separation of the two plants if the plants were in an obligate mutualistic relationship. On template 2, graph the predicted shape of the plant-mass lines if the species 2 plant was a parasite of the species 1 plant. Justify each of your predictions.

Living and dead organisms continuously shed DNA fragments, known as eDNA, into the environment. To detect eDNA fragments in the environment, the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to amplify specific eDNA fragments. eDNA fragments of different lengths persist in the environment for varying amounts of time before becoming undetectable (Figure 1). To investigate whether silver carp, an invasive fish, have moved from a nearby river system into Lake Michigan, researchers tested water samples for the presence of eDNA specific to silver carp (Figure 2).

Justify the use of eDNA sampling as an appropriate technique for detecting the presence of silver carp in an environment where many different species of fish are found. Propose ONE advantage of identifying long eDNA fragments as opposed to short fragments for detecting silver carp.

The researchers tested a large number of water samples from Lake Michigan and found eDNA specific to silver carp in a single sample in the lake, as indicated in Figure 2. The researchers concluded that the single positive sample was a false positive and that no silver carp had entered Lake Michigan. Provide reasoning other than human error to support the researchers’ claim.

In a certain species of plant, the diploid number of chromosomes is 4 (2n = 4). Flower color is controlled by a single gene in which the green allele ( G ) is dominant to the purple allele ( g ). Plant height is controlled by a different gene in which the dwarf allele ( D ) is dominant to the tall allele ( d ). Individuals of the parental ( P ) generation with the genotypes GGDD and ggdd were crossed to produce F1 progeny.

Construct a diagram below to depict the four possible normal products of meiosis that would be produced by the F1 progeny. Show the chromosomes and the allele(s) they carry. Assume the genes are located on different chromosomes and the gene for flower color is on chromosome 1.

Predict the possible phenotypes and their ratios in the offspring of a testcross between an F1 individual and a ggdd individual.

If the two genes were genetically linked, describe how the proportions of phenotypes of the resulting offspring would most likely differ from those of the testcross between an F1 individual and a ggdd individual.

Researchers conducted a study to investigate the effect of exercise on the release of prolactin into the blood. The researchers measured the concentration of prolactin in the blood of eight adult males before (T = 0 hour) and after one hour (T = 1 hour) of vigorous exercise. As a control, the researchers measured the concentration of blood prolactin in the same group of individuals at the same times of day one week later, but without having them exercise. The results are shown in Figure 1.

Justify the use of the without-exercise treatment as the control in the study design.

Using evidence from the specific treatments, determine whether prolactin release changes after exercise. Justify your answer.

👉 AP Bio 2015 FRQs

Gene Expression and Regulation, Ecology (Symbiosis, Genetic Expression)

Many species have circadian rhythms that exhibit an approximately 24-hour cycle. Circadian rhythms are controlled by both genetics and environmental conditions, including light. Researchers investigated the effect of light on mouse behavior by using a running wheel with a motion sensor to record activity on actograms, as shown in Figure 1. For the investigation, adult male mice were individually housed in cages in a soundproof room at 25°C. Each mouse was provided with adequate food, water, bedding material, and a running wheel. The mice were exposed to daily periods of 12 hours of light (L) and 12 hours of dark (D) (L12:D12) for 14 days, and their activity was continuously monitored. The activity data are shown in Figure 2. After 14 days in L12:D12, the mice were placed in continuous darkness (DD), and their activity on the running wheel was recorded as before. The activity data under DD conditions are shown in Figure 3.

The nervous system plays a role in coordinating the observed activity pattern of the mice in response to light-dark stimuli. Describe ONE role of each of the following anatomical structures in responding to lightdark stimuli.

A photoreceptor in the retina of the eye

A motor neuron

Based on an analysis of the data in Figure 2, describe the activity pattern of the mice during the light and dark periods of the L12:D12 cycle.

The researchers claim that the genetically controlled circadian rhythm in the mice does not follow a 24-hour cycle. Describe ONE difference between the daily pattern of activity under L12:D12 conditions (Figure 2) and under DD conditions (Figure 3), and use the data to support the researchers’ claim.

To investigate the claim that exposure to light overrides the genetically controlled circadian rhythm, the researchers plan to repeat the experiment with mutant mice lacking a gene that controls the circadian rhythm. Predict the observed activity pattern of the mutant mice under L12:D12 conditions and under DD conditions that would support the claim that light overrides the genetically controlled circadian rhythm.

In nature, mice are potential prey for some predatory birds that hunt during the day. Describe TWO features of a model that represents how the predator-prey relationship between the birds and the mice may have resulted in the evolution of the observed activity pattern of the mice.

Cellular Energetics (Cellular Respiration, ATP, Krebs Cycle, Glycolysis)

Cellular respiration includes the metabolic pathways of glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain, as represented in the figures. In cellular respiration, carbohydrates and other metabolites are oxidized, and the resulting energy-transfer reactions support the synthesis of ATP.

Using the information above, describe ONE contribution of each of the following in ATP synthesis.

Catabolism of glucose in glycolysis and pyruvate oxidation

Oxidation of intermediates in the Krebs cycle

Formation of a proton gradient by the electron transport chain

Use each of the following observations to justify the claim that glycolysis first occurred in a common ancestor of all living organisms.

Nearly all existing organisms perform glycolysis.

Glycolysis occurs under anaerobic conditions.

Glycolysis occurs only in the cytosol.

A researcher estimates that, in a certain organism, the complete metabolism of glucose produces 30 molecules of ATP for each molecule of glucose. The energy released from the total oxidation of glucose under standard conditions is 686 kcal/mol. The energy released from the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate under standard conditions is 7.3 kcal/mol. Calculate the amount of energy available from the hydrolysis of 30 moles of ATP. Calculate the efficiency of total ATP production from 1 mole of glucose in the organism. Describe what happens to the excess energy that is released from the metabolism of glucose.

The enzymes of the Krebs cycle function in the cytosol of bacteria, but among eukaryotes the enzymes function mostly in the mitochondria. Pose a scientific question that connects the subcellular location of the enzymes in the Krebs cycle to the evolution of eukaryotes.

Natural Selection, Chemical Structure of Life (Amino Acids, Phylogenic Tree)

The amino acid sequence of cytochrome c was determined for five different species of vertebrates. The table below shows the number of differences in the sequences between each pair of species.

Using the data in the table, create a phylogenetic tree on the template provided to reflect the evolutionary relationships of the organisms. Provide reasoning for the placement on the tree of the species that is least related to the others.

Identify whether morphological data or amino acid sequence data are more likely to accurately represent the true evolutionary relationships among the species, and provide reasoning for your answer.

Cell Communication and Cell Cycle (Mitosis, Meiosis)

Both mitosis and meiosis are forms of cell division that produce daughter cells containing genetic information from the parent cell.

Describe TWO events that are common to both mitosis and meiosis that ensure the resulting daughter cells inherit the appropriate number of chromosomes.

The genetic composition of daughter cells produced by mitosis differs from that of the daughter cells produced by meiosis. Describe TWO features of the cell division processes that lead to these differences.

Cellular Energetics (Photosynthesis)

Phototropism in plants is a response in which a plant shoot grows toward a light source. The results of five different experimental treatments from classic investigations of phototropism are shown above.

Give support for the claim that the cells located in the tip of the plant shoot detect the light by comparing the results from treatment group I with the results from treatment group II and treatment group III.

In treatment groups IV and V, the tips of the plants are removed and placed back onto the shoot on either a permeable or impermeable barrier. Using the results from treatment groups IV and V, describe TWO additional characteristics of the phototropism response.

Ecology (Population Dynamics)

In an attempt to rescue a small isolated population of snakes from decline, a few male snakes from several larger populations of the same species were introduced into the population in 1992. The snakes reproduce sexually, and there are abundant resources in the environment. The figure below shows the results of a study of the snake population both before and after the introduction of the outside males. In the study, the numbers of captured snakes indicate the overall population size.

Describe ONE characteristic of the original population that may have led to the population’s decline in size between 1989 and 1993.

Propose ONE reason that the introduction of the outside males rescued the snake population from decline.

Describe how the data support the statement that there are abundant resources in the environment.

Cell Communication and Cell Cycle (Cell signaling, transmissions)

Smell perception in mammals involves the interactions of airborne odorant molecules from the environment with receptor proteins on the olfactory neurons in the nasal cavity. The binding of odorant molecules to the receptor proteins triggers action potentials in the olfactory neurons and results in transmission of information to the brain. Mammalian genomes typically have approximately 1,000 functional odorant-receptor genes, each encoding a unique odorant receptor.

Describe how the signal is transmitted across the synapse from an activated olfactory sensory neuron to the interneuron that transmits the information to the brain.

Explain how the expression of a limited number of odorant receptor genes can lead to the perception of thousands of odors. Use the evidence about the number of odorant receptor genes to support your answer

Cell Communication and Cell Cycle (Cell Communication, Immune System)

An individual has lost the ability to activate B cells and mount a humoral immune response.

Propose ONE direct consequence of the loss of B-cell activity on the individual’s humoral immune response to the initial exposure to a bacterial pathogen.

Propose ONE direct consequence of the loss of B-cell activity on the speed of the individual’s humoral immune response to a second exposure to the bacterial pathogen.

Describe ONE characteristic of the individual’s immune response to the bacterial pathogen that is not affected by the loss of B cells.

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• Feb 16, 2021

AP Biology Past FRQs by Topic

Updated: Jan 31

**Updated on 1/31/24 to include the 2022-23 FRQ exams!**

If you are looking for past AP Biology free-response questions (FRQs) that are organized by topic, then you have come to the right place. In this post, we have linked every freely available past FRQ there is from College Board and organized it into the following major topics of AP Biology .

(Please note that we are not associated with College Board and are simply sharing the resources they have made available to students.)

Biochemistry

Metabolism & energetics.

Physiology (note that this topic will not be tested on the official AP Biology exam this year in 2021, although many questions about physiology could also cover concepts that will be tested)

Experiment design & data analysis

Need more AP-style practice problems?

Intensively doing and reviewing practice questions is proven to be much more effective than spending hours studying. Check out our AP Bio Practice Portal , which is an easy-to-use database of 300+ AP-style MCQ and FRQ practice questions. Students love the Practice Portal because it includes answers and explanations for every problem, tracks progress, and saves time from Googling practice problems.

Try the Practice Portal >

How to make the most of past frqs from college board.

As noted above, the diversity of organisms, plants, and physiology will not be on the 2021 AP Biology exam. However, the exam could include questions about topics or hypothetical situations that are related to those topics. One great example is cell communication, which is used in multiple systems inside our bodies. Let’s say an FRQ was to appear about the immune system and how the immune cells communicate. That would be fair game as long as the question focuses on the cell signaling part, not the details of the immune system. If the question requires some background knowledge about the immune system, it will be provided.

If you want to do a whole practice FRQ set just like the ones on the real exam (which we highly recommend), all the freely available past FRQs by year are available here on the College Board website. Tip: time yourself and take the practice FRQ set in an environment that mimics how you imagine your actual testing environment to be.

If you would like to focus on a particular topic, then the section coming up is for you. Some FRQs will show up under multiple topics because they truly do test students’ understanding of multiple different topics.

Tip : Whether you are doing individual free-response questions or doing a full problem set in one go, it is extremely important and effective to do test corrections! Don’t only consult the scoring guidelines and model responses when you have no clue how to answer a question. You should be checking them for all the FRQs you do. When you find a difference between your answer and the scoring guidelines, it is important that you pause and analyze why your response is incorrect. Take the time to understand your mistakes and see how your answer could have been better. This will help you boost your scores the most efficiently.

AP BIOLOGY FRQs BY TOPIC

Below are the linked FRQs organized by topic. The header for each topic will also lead you to the corresponding study guide that will help you review the unit in detail!

Basic and organic chemistry concepts do not come up often on the FRQs (but of course, it’s better to be prepared). The properties of water and macromolecules come up occasionally.

2017 #7 and 8

Includes cell structure and function, cell transport and the proteins involved.

2019 #3 and 8

2018 #2, 6, and 8

2006 #1, 3, and 4

2001 #1 and 4

(study guide coming soon!)

This unit includes enzymes, cellular respiration, and photosynthesis.

2023 #2 (cell respiration & photosynthesis)

2023 #4 (photosynthesis)

2022 #3 (enzymes)

2021 #3 (cell respiration)

2019 #3 (cell respiration)

2018 #2 (cell respiration)

2017 #7 (cell respiration)

2017 #5 (photosynthesis)

2015 #2 (cell respiration)

2013 #2 (photosynthesis) and 4 (cell respiration & photosynthesis)

2012 #2 (cell respiration) and 4 (cell respiration & photosynthesis)

2010 #2 (enzymes)

2007 #3 (photosynthesis)

2006 #4 (photosynthesis)

2005 #1 (cell respiration & photosynthesis)

2004 #3 (photosynthesis)

Cell cycle & cell signaling

This topic has shown up more frequently and in more difficult FRQs in recent years, especially cell communication. The trend will most likely continue so definitely prioritize reviewing and practicing this topic!

2023 #1 (cell communication)

2022 #1 (cell communication)

2022 #2 (cell cycle, meiosis)

2021 #1 (cell communication)

2019 #4 (cell communication)

2018 #8 (cell communication)

2017 #8 (cell communication)

2016 # 7 (cell division)

2015 # 4 (cell division)

2015 #5 and 7 (cell communication)

2013 #8 (cell communication)

2011 #1B (cell division)

2010 #1 (cell communication)

2006 #1B (cell division)

2004 #1 (cell division)

Genetics, Gene Expression and Regulation

Genetics Pt 1 and Genetics Pt 2 Study Guides

This section includes the classic Mendelian genetics, with Punnett squares, crosses, and Mendel’s laws. It also includes DNA replication, protein synthesis, and gene expression regulation for both eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

2023 #6 (gene expression)

2022 #6 (protein synthesis, gene expression)

2021 #6 (gene expression)

2021 #2 (heredity + pedigrees)

2020 #1 parts a-b

2019 #1 and 3

2018 #1, 4, and 7

2016 #4 and 7

2023 #5 (Cladistics)

2022 #4 (speciation)

2020 #1 parts f-j

2015 #3 and 6

2014 #2 and 4

2015 #2 (nervous system)

2014 #2 (immune system) and 6 (musculoskeletal system) and 7

2017 #2, 4, and 7b

2016 #3 and 5

2014 #3 and 4

Experimental design & analysis

This is an additional section that isn’t focused on any particular topic or has significant data analysis involved. While most FRQs do pertain to a specific topic(s), some are simply there to test your knowledge of experimental design and understanding of statistical concepts such as performing Chi-Square tests and interpreting error bars on graphs. These types of questions have become more and more common on the AP exam, so it is important to feel comfortable and confident with them.

2023 #6 (data analysis)

2022 #3 (experiment design)

2020 #1 parts c-e

2016 #2 , 6 and 8

2014 #1 and 5

2013 #1 and 7

Hope these organized FRQs saved you some time so you can focus more on actually doing them and practicing! You can easily share this post with friends who may find it helpful as well.

How to Improve AP Biology FRQ Scores, Fast

Do a lot of FRQ practice problems and review the answers! Practice is key, especially for a subject as dense as AP Bio. Check out the AP Bio Practice Portal , which is our popular vault of 300+ AP-style MCQ and FRQ problem sets with answers and explanations for every question. Don't waste any more time Googling practice problems or answers - try it out now!

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Critical Thinking Questions

• When the theory of evolution was first proposed, it met with a lot of criticism and disbelief, but it is widely supported today. Theories that have withstood a larger amount of criticism are more credible than those that are accepted easily
• The theory of evolution has its foundation in both biological and geological observations, making it a more credible theory because it can explain more about the world
• The theory of evolution relies on the heritability of traits, but the mechanism of this inheritance was not understood when the theory was developed. This reduces the credibility of the theory because the people who created it did not understand how it worked
• It is meaningful that two naturalists working independently from each other offered the same explanation for the same set of phenomena. When two people independently look at the same evidence and come to the same conclusion, this reinforces the credibility of that conclusion
• If the adaptation of a better running speed is controled by genetics and is benificial to survival and reproduction, evolution will favor it.
• If the adaptation of better running speed is favorable in a given environment, it will be controlled by genetics and evolution will increase it.
• If the adaptation of better running speed is benificial to survival and reproduction, random mution will naturally select it.
• If the adaptation of better running speed is favored by natural selection, the organism will naturally select an environment where it can run the farthest.
• An example of convergent evolution is the development of the same function, swimming, in organisms that live in different parts of the globe, such as Arctic beluga whales and Antarctic right whales. The fact that organisms that do not come in contact with each other have developed the same traits suggests that natural selection can produce similar adaptations in organisms who share a similar environment
• An example of convergent evolution is the set of adaptations, such as better running speed or more efficient hunting, developed by a species in response to competition with a new species that moves into the same region. The fact that a species adapts after it comes into contact with a competitor suggests that natural selection works more quickly with higher selective pressures.
• An example of convergent evolution is the development of an ancestral structure, a limb, into two different modern structures, such as a hand and a flipper. The fact that natural selection can cause a structure to develop down two different pathways due to different environmental conditions supports the theory of evolution
• An example of convergent evolution is the development of the same function, flying, in organisms that do not share a recent common ancestry, such as insects and birds. The fact that wings that allow flight have developed from very different original structures suggests that the process of natural selection can produce similar adaptations in two very different types of organisms who share a similar environment
• Vestigial structures are the result of convergent evolution, so they are good evidence that natural selection act similarly in similar environmental conditions.
• Vestigial structures are the result of common ancestry, so they are good evidence that different populations of organisms evolved from a common point.
• Vestigial structures are the result of convergent evolution, so they are good evidence for an end goal to evolution.
• Vestigial structures are the result of common ancestry, so they are good evidence for a common origin of all life.

Reproduction in sexually-reproducing organisms occurs when two sex cells, or gametes, fuse. In fish, this occurs when sperm swim through the water to find the ovum. In flowers, pollen is dispersed through the air and carried to another flower. Explain what evolutionary adaptations for reproduction occur in humans, based on the fact that we are land-based animals.

While examining the human genome, you find a gene that is not homologous to any other organisms known to man. You conclude that this gene must be unique to the human species and could not have evolved from another organism. Would this discovery suggest that humans do not share a common ancestor with all other organisms on Earth? Explain your answer.

Mutations in the glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) gene can cause a rare anemia when inherited. However, homozygotes with this mutation are less prone to malaria infection, a disease that historically was the most widespread deadly disease among humans. Predict how this mutation would affect the fitness of individuals living in countries where malaria is endemic.

• A scientific theory is a hypothesis that needs to be tested, whereas people often use theory to mean a simple guess.
• A scientific theory has many parts and exceptions, while people often use it to mean a statement that is a universal rule.
• A scientific theory is a thoroughly tested set of explanations for a body of observations of nature, while people often use it to mean a guess or speculation.
• A scientific theory is a hypothetical thought experiment, while people often use it to mean a statement that is somewhat based in fact.
• A distinction between species allows scientists to understand the common origin of all species.
• A common definition of species allows scientists to agree on all aspects of the theory of evolution.
• Divergence can only occur at the species level: it does not occur to larger taxa. Therefore it is important to know which groups are distinct species.
• In the study of evolution, the species is the unit over which change is measured.

A labrador retriever suffers from a mutation while growing. A patch of gold-colored fur turns black.

Would the same mutation affect this dog's offspring?

• Yes, mutations are hereditary and are passed on to offspring.
• There is a 50% chance of the offpsring getting the mutation, based on which chromosome gets from which parent.
• Unless the other parent has the same mutation, the offspring would not get the mutation.
• No, a mutation in the fur would not affect the germ cells of the dog and would not pass to its offspring.
• Prezygotic and postzygotic barriers allow for the formation of less-fit hybrids that reinforces speciation.
• Prezygotic and postzygotic barriers prevent interbreeding of species such that there is no gene flow between them.
• Prezygotic and postzygotic barriers prevent migration of the two species, causing them to remain in contact with each other and begin to interbreed.
• Prezygotic and postzygotic barriers are present only in newly-formed species, allowing scientists to identify the time of divergence of the species.

A population of flowers was separated into two subpopulations when a new river cut through the plain in which they were growing. The number of interbreeding events per year for the two subpopulations of flowers is shown in the graph below. Twenty-four years after they were separated, can you conclude that the two subpopulations of flowers have become new species? Why or why not?

• Allopatric speciation is more common because it prevents gene flow between the species.
• Allopatric speciation is more common because it involves stronger prezygotic barriers.
• Sympatric speciation is more common because it prevents gene flow between the species.
• Sympatric speciation is more common because it involves stronger prezygotic barriers.
• The finches likely shared a common ancestor when they came to the island, but exhibited different traits. Each species of finch settled the island where its particular traits would be the most adaptive.
• The finches likely originated as one parent species, but over time mutations caused them to develop reproductive barriers and separate into different species. To reduce competition, the species then radiated out to inhabit different islands.
• The finches likely dispersed from one parent species, and natural selection based on different food sources in differing habitats led to adaptive changes, evidenced in the different beak shapes of the different species-each suited to a different food type.
• It is likely that a series of cataclysmic events caused an original finch species to diverge into the many finch species that inhabited the islands when Darwin observed them. The different species then radiated out to the different islands and adapted to the different conditions on each.
• Separate species cannot interbreed, so hybrid reproduction does not occur in nature
• If the hybrid offspring are more fit than the parents, reproduction would likely continue between both species and the hybrids, eventually bringing all organisms under the umbrella of one species
• Two species that have recently diverged from each other can reproduce with each other, creating hybrid individuals that belong to the species of the parents’ common ancestor.
• If two species occupy the same niche in the same area, they can either compete or they can collaborate and reproduce with each other, eventually fusing into a single species

The image shows the number of species for Asian frogs. The x-axis is time in millions of years. The top image shows main frog lineages, and the graph shows the number of frog species.

Which statement best describes the speciation in this example?

• This is an example of gradual speciation, happening at a near-constant rate over time.
• This is an example of gradual speciation with a slightly higher rate than expected.
• This is an example of punctuated equilibrium and the frog species are experiencing the sudden jump.
• This is an example of punctuated equilibrium and the frog species have stabilized after the jump.
• If two closely related species continue to produce hybrids, the hybrids will compete with both species, causing them to find new niches which will further their divergence
• If two closely related species continue to produce hybrids, they will develop reproductive barriers to prevent production of hybrids, to ensure that they remain separate species.
• If two closely related species continue to produce hybrids that are less fit than the parent species, there would be reinforcement of divergence.
• If two closely related species continue to produce hybrids they will always converge into a single species

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